If one person pays all or a majority of the mortgage on a property, why do they then have to split that property 50% with somebody who contributed nothing?
Because marriage is a partnership and generally the people who “contributed nothing” are the ones who gave up or significantly delayed or harmed their careers to take up the home front in the marriage.
I know a woman whose wealthy husband told her to sell her small business because she didn’t need to work. A few years later when he divorced her for a younger woman and the prenup says she gets very little, she’s out on her ass with years of no work experience and no more small business.
Because marriage is a partnership and generally the people who “contributed nothing” are the ones who gave up or significantly delayed or harmed their careers to take up the home front in the marriage.
I know a woman whose wealthy husband told her to sell her small business because she didn’t need to work. A few years later when he divorced her for a younger woman and the prenup says she gets very little, she’s out on her ass with years of no work experience and no more small business.